Thank you, Alicia!
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Aw, I found this post. Sorry it took me so long. Ruth pointed me in the right direction. THANKS Ruth.
So, I think I may be part of the confusion here everyone. When we get a question on the Q&A and are not sure what the direction of the question is we sort of go with what we know. I think that is what happened and I may have made an assumption.
This is how I took the question.
A patient comes in with 789.59 which is those Ascites that I pronounce funny.
The patient is dx with 197.6 that caused the ascites. However this was an assumption of mine. It just so happens that it is also the code given as an example in the manual. What we do know is that if a person is coded 789.59 we need to first code the CA that caused the 789.59 per the guideline.
In the question I thought that it was stated the primary CA was mentioned but not given. When this happens in documentation that means you can use 199.1. If however the primary CA is not mentioned the code 197.6 is enough. It is a code for a secondary CA. That is sufficient for the Payer in most cases.
So this really boils down in my eyes to where the question came from. If this was a test question I would say that you would use the 199.1. They would be testing to see if you knew it and that the 789.59 was sequenced after the CA code.
If this is a real world case question that changes it a bit. You could leave off the 199.1 because it would depend on what the payer wanted.
I think I didn't get the gist of what the real question was. I may have read into it a bit. Let me know if I am on track here or if there is more to the question then I am seeing. I LOVE these type of questions with ICD-9.
Sorry for the confusion. Again, I am sure this was on my part.